The value of the integral is
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.None of these
Show answer and solution
Correct option: A
Solution
Using the property ∫₀ᵃ f(x)dx = ∫₀ᵃ f(a−x)dx, let I = ∫₀^(π/2) √(cot x)/(√(cot x)+√(tan x)) dx. Replacing x with (π/2 − x) swaps cot x and tan x, giving I = ∫₀^(π/2) √(tan x)/(√(tan x)+√(cot x)) dx. Adding both forms: 2I = ∫₀^(π/2) 1 dx = π/2, so I = π/4.
[1983]