Let a random variable have a binomial distribution with mean 8 and variance 4. If , then is equal to
- A.17
- B.121
- C.1
- D.137
Show answer and solution
Correct option: D
Solution
Mean = np = 8, Variance = npq = 4, so q = 1/2, p = 1/2, n = 16.
P(X ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)
= (1/2)16 · [C(16,0) + C(16,1) + C(16,2)]
= (1 + 16 + 120) / 216
= 137 / 216
So k = 137.
P(X ≤ 2) = P(0) + P(1) + P(2)
= (1/2)16 · [C(16,0) + C(16,1) + C(16,2)]
= (1 + 16 + 120) / 216
= 137 / 216
So k = 137.
[JEE Main 2019 · 12 April · Shift I]