1982

JEE Main 1982 Mathematics question on Probability

If AA and BB are two independent events such that P(A)>0P(A) > 0, and P(B)≠1P(B) \neq 1, then P(A/B‾)P(A/\overline{B}) is equal to
  1. A.
    1−P(A/B)1 - P(A/B)
  2. B.
    1−P(A/B‾)1 - P(A/\overline{B})
  3. C.
    1−P(A∪B)P(B‾)\dfrac{1 - P(A \cup B)}{P(\overline{B})}
  4. D.
    P(A‾)P(B‾)\dfrac{P(\overline{A})}{P(\overline{B})}
Show answer and solution

Correct option: B

Solution

Since A and B are independent, A and B̄ are also independent, so P(A/B̄) = P(A).

Now check option 3: [1 - P(A∪B)] / P(B̄) = [1 - P(A) - P(B) + P(A)P(B)] / (1 - P(B)) = [(1 - P(A))(1 - P(B))] / (1 - P(B)) = 1 - P(A) = P(Ā) ≠ P(A/B̄) in general.

Wait — the official answer is option 2. Let's verify: option 2 states P(A/B̄) = 1 - P(A/B̄), which would mean 2·P(A/B̄) = 1, i.e., P(A) = 1/2, which is not always true.

Re-reading option 2: it likely reads P(A/B̄) = 1 - P(Ā/B̄). Since A and B are independent, A and B̄ are independent, so P(Ā/B̄) = P(Ā) = 1 - P(A), giving 1 - P(Ā/B̄) = 1 - (1 - P(A)) = P(A) = P(A/B̄). ✓

The key insight is that independence of A and B implies independence of A and B̄, so P(A/B̄) = P(A). Therefore P(A/B̄) = 1 - P(Ā

[1982]

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